Benjamin Sesko is the latest striker being considered by both Arsenal and Chelsea as they aim to address issues at centre-forward, according to reports.
A report from Calciomercato – which, as an Italian source, mainly focuses on AC Milan adding Sesko to their shortlist – has listed Arsenal and Chelsea as two strong contenders for the Slovenia international.
The two London rivals are looking at new options up front so they can reach the next level. Arsenal currently have Gabriel Jesus and Eddie Nketiah – who scored a hat trick on his most recent appearance – and Chelsea invested in Nicolas Jackson over the summer to compete with Armando Broja.
If either of them want to make Sesko their new target man, they would have to invest somewhere between €45m and €50m to tempt RB Leipzig into turning a quick profit. In other words, the asking price is between £39.4m and £43.7m.
Sesko is under contract in Germany until 2028. So far, he has scored six goals from 12 appearances across all competitions for RB Leipzig since his summer switch.
Any move for Sesko would be unlikely to occur just six months into his Leipzig career. Instead, the report claims Milan are considering him for next summer, which is presumably when Arsenal and Chelsea could get involved too, unless they want to try and steal a march on other bidders.
Sesko value quickly multiplying
Considering the theory that Sesko’s price tag has already approximately doubled in relation to the €24m RB Leipzig paid for him, it might be best to invest in the 20-year-old sooner rather than later.
However, Arsenal and Chelsea are both working from lengthy lists of potential targets, including many names that appear on both of their radars.
For example, Ivan Toney has been linked with both clubs as he prepares for his next step after Brentford. Santiago Gimenez from Feyenoord has also been mentioned in connection with the pair of London rivals, as has – to a less balanced degree – Napoli’s Victor Osimhen, who we understand Chelsea are especially in the mix for.